Nested homeomorphic sets












4












$begingroup$


Suppose we have a countable collection of sets ${U_n}$ such that $U_nsubset U_{n+1}$ for each $n$ and $U_n$ is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, $X$) for each $n$, then is $bigcup_{n=1}^infty U_n$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or $X$)? I am not sure pushing $n$ to $infty$ works and I couldn't construct an explicit homeomorphism. Thanks!






general-topology







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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    1 hour ago
















4












$begingroup$


Suppose we have a countable collection of sets ${U_n}$ such that $U_nsubset U_{n+1}$ for each $n$ and $U_n$ is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, $X$) for each $n$, then is $bigcup_{n=1}^infty U_n$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or $X$)? I am not sure pushing $n$ to $infty$ works and I couldn't construct an explicit homeomorphism. Thanks!






general-topology







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    1 hour ago














4












4








4





$begingroup$


Suppose we have a countable collection of sets ${U_n}$ such that $U_nsubset U_{n+1}$ for each $n$ and $U_n$ is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, $X$) for each $n$, then is $bigcup_{n=1}^infty U_n$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or $X$)? I am not sure pushing $n$ to $infty$ works and I couldn't construct an explicit homeomorphism. Thanks!






general-topology







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose we have a countable collection of sets ${U_n}$ such that $U_nsubset U_{n+1}$ for each $n$ and $U_n$ is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, $X$) for each $n$, then is $bigcup_{n=1}^infty U_n$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or $X$)? I am not sure pushing $n$ to $infty$ works and I couldn't construct an explicit homeomorphism. Thanks!






general-topology




general-topology






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 hours ago









bof

51.3k457120




51.3k457120










asked 2 hours ago









J.DoeJ.Doe

6814




6814








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    1 hour ago














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    1 hour ago








1




1




$begingroup$
Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
1 hour ago




$begingroup$
Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
1 hour ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi i theta} -1 mid theta in [0,1-1/i)} cup {e^{2pi i theta} +1 mid theta in [1/2, 3/2-1/i)}.$$



Then every $U_i$ is a subset of the union of two circles that are glued together at a single point at the origin and is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$. The union $bigcup_i geq 1$ is equal to the union of the two circles.




Here's a simpler example for $Xcong [0,1)$ using the same idea. Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi itheta} mid theta in [0,1-1/i)}.$$



Then $U_i cong [0,1)$ for all $i geq 1$, but $bigcup_{i geq 1} U_i = S^1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Or you could simply take $U_n=[-n,n)$ and $bigcup_nU_n=mathbb R.$ But I'm surprised that you can do the same thing for $Xcongmathbb R$. Could you please give an explanation for dummies?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    36 mins ago



















0












$begingroup$

For $X=Bbb R$, it's homeomorphic with any open interval, and $U_nsubseteq U_{n+1}$ implies here that $U_n$ is a subinterval.

Thus, we can choose decreasing $a_n$ and increasing $b_n$ such that $U_n$ is homeomorphically mapped to $(a_n, b_n)$.

Then, $cup_nU_n$ will be homeomorphic with $(inf a_n, sup b_n) $.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This does not appear to answer the question.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Your edit has not changed much.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









4












$begingroup$

Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi i theta} -1 mid theta in [0,1-1/i)} cup {e^{2pi i theta} +1 mid theta in [1/2, 3/2-1/i)}.$$



Then every $U_i$ is a subset of the union of two circles that are glued together at a single point at the origin and is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$. The union $bigcup_i geq 1$ is equal to the union of the two circles.




Here's a simpler example for $Xcong [0,1)$ using the same idea. Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi itheta} mid theta in [0,1-1/i)}.$$



Then $U_i cong [0,1)$ for all $i geq 1$, but $bigcup_{i geq 1} U_i = S^1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Or you could simply take $U_n=[-n,n)$ and $bigcup_nU_n=mathbb R.$ But I'm surprised that you can do the same thing for $Xcongmathbb R$. Could you please give an explanation for dummies?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    36 mins ago
















4












$begingroup$

Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi i theta} -1 mid theta in [0,1-1/i)} cup {e^{2pi i theta} +1 mid theta in [1/2, 3/2-1/i)}.$$



Then every $U_i$ is a subset of the union of two circles that are glued together at a single point at the origin and is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$. The union $bigcup_i geq 1$ is equal to the union of the two circles.




Here's a simpler example for $Xcong [0,1)$ using the same idea. Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi itheta} mid theta in [0,1-1/i)}.$$



Then $U_i cong [0,1)$ for all $i geq 1$, but $bigcup_{i geq 1} U_i = S^1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Or you could simply take $U_n=[-n,n)$ and $bigcup_nU_n=mathbb R.$ But I'm surprised that you can do the same thing for $Xcongmathbb R$. Could you please give an explanation for dummies?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    36 mins ago














4












4








4





$begingroup$

Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi i theta} -1 mid theta in [0,1-1/i)} cup {e^{2pi i theta} +1 mid theta in [1/2, 3/2-1/i)}.$$



Then every $U_i$ is a subset of the union of two circles that are glued together at a single point at the origin and is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$. The union $bigcup_i geq 1$ is equal to the union of the two circles.




Here's a simpler example for $Xcong [0,1)$ using the same idea. Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi itheta} mid theta in [0,1-1/i)}.$$



Then $U_i cong [0,1)$ for all $i geq 1$, but $bigcup_{i geq 1} U_i = S^1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi i theta} -1 mid theta in [0,1-1/i)} cup {e^{2pi i theta} +1 mid theta in [1/2, 3/2-1/i)}.$$



Then every $U_i$ is a subset of the union of two circles that are glued together at a single point at the origin and is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$. The union $bigcup_i geq 1$ is equal to the union of the two circles.




Here's a simpler example for $Xcong [0,1)$ using the same idea. Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi itheta} mid theta in [0,1-1/i)}.$$



Then $U_i cong [0,1)$ for all $i geq 1$, but $bigcup_{i geq 1} U_i = S^1$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 1 hour ago

























answered 1 hour ago









Dan RustDan Rust

22.7k114884




22.7k114884








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Or you could simply take $U_n=[-n,n)$ and $bigcup_nU_n=mathbb R.$ But I'm surprised that you can do the same thing for $Xcongmathbb R$. Could you please give an explanation for dummies?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    36 mins ago














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Or you could simply take $U_n=[-n,n)$ and $bigcup_nU_n=mathbb R.$ But I'm surprised that you can do the same thing for $Xcongmathbb R$. Could you please give an explanation for dummies?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    36 mins ago








1




1




$begingroup$
I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
$endgroup$
– zhw.
1 hour ago




$begingroup$
I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
$endgroup$
– zhw.
1 hour ago












$begingroup$
Or you could simply take $U_n=[-n,n)$ and $bigcup_nU_n=mathbb R.$ But I'm surprised that you can do the same thing for $Xcongmathbb R$. Could you please give an explanation for dummies?
$endgroup$
– bof
1 hour ago




$begingroup$
Or you could simply take $U_n=[-n,n)$ and $bigcup_nU_n=mathbb R.$ But I'm surprised that you can do the same thing for $Xcongmathbb R$. Could you please give an explanation for dummies?
$endgroup$
– bof
1 hour ago












$begingroup$
@zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
1 hour ago




$begingroup$
@zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
1 hour ago












$begingroup$
Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
$endgroup$
– bof
36 mins ago




$begingroup$
Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
$endgroup$
– bof
36 mins ago











0












$begingroup$

For $X=Bbb R$, it's homeomorphic with any open interval, and $U_nsubseteq U_{n+1}$ implies here that $U_n$ is a subinterval.

Thus, we can choose decreasing $a_n$ and increasing $b_n$ such that $U_n$ is homeomorphically mapped to $(a_n, b_n)$.

Then, $cup_nU_n$ will be homeomorphic with $(inf a_n, sup b_n) $.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This does not appear to answer the question.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Your edit has not changed much.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago
















0












$begingroup$

For $X=Bbb R$, it's homeomorphic with any open interval, and $U_nsubseteq U_{n+1}$ implies here that $U_n$ is a subinterval.

Thus, we can choose decreasing $a_n$ and increasing $b_n$ such that $U_n$ is homeomorphically mapped to $(a_n, b_n)$.

Then, $cup_nU_n$ will be homeomorphic with $(inf a_n, sup b_n) $.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This does not appear to answer the question.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Your edit has not changed much.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago














0












0








0





$begingroup$

For $X=Bbb R$, it's homeomorphic with any open interval, and $U_nsubseteq U_{n+1}$ implies here that $U_n$ is a subinterval.

Thus, we can choose decreasing $a_n$ and increasing $b_n$ such that $U_n$ is homeomorphically mapped to $(a_n, b_n)$.

Then, $cup_nU_n$ will be homeomorphic with $(inf a_n, sup b_n) $.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



For $X=Bbb R$, it's homeomorphic with any open interval, and $U_nsubseteq U_{n+1}$ implies here that $U_n$ is a subinterval.

Thus, we can choose decreasing $a_n$ and increasing $b_n$ such that $U_n$ is homeomorphically mapped to $(a_n, b_n)$.

Then, $cup_nU_n$ will be homeomorphic with $(inf a_n, sup b_n) $.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 1 hour ago

























answered 1 hour ago









BerciBerci

60.2k23672




60.2k23672












  • $begingroup$
    This does not appear to answer the question.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Your edit has not changed much.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago


















  • $begingroup$
    This does not appear to answer the question.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago










  • $begingroup$
    Your edit has not changed much.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    1 hour ago
















$begingroup$
This does not appear to answer the question.
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
1 hour ago




$begingroup$
This does not appear to answer the question.
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
1 hour ago












$begingroup$
Your edit has not changed much.
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
1 hour ago




$begingroup$
Your edit has not changed much.
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
1 hour ago


















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日野市

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body.skin-minerva .mw-parser-output table.infobox caption{text-align:center} 日野市 日野市 日文轉寫  • 日文 日野市  • 平假名 ひのし  • 罗马字 Hino-shi 金剛寺（關東三十六不動尊靈場第9號）的不動堂 市旗 徽章 日野市在東京都的位置 日野市 日野市在日本的位置 坐标： 35°40′17″N 139°23′42″E  /  35.6714°N 139.395°E  / 35.6714; 139.395 国家   日本 地方 關東地方 都道府縣 東京都 接鄰行政區 府中市、國立市、立川市、昭島市、八王子市、多摩市 政府  • 市長 大坪冬彦 面积  •  总计 27.53 平方公里（10.63 平方英里） 人口 （2014年12月1日）  • 總計 183,323  • 密度 6,660/平方公里（17,200/平方英里） 象徵  • 市樹 樫  • 市花 菊花  • 市鳥 普通翠鳥 时区 日本標準時間 （UTC+9） 地方公共團體編號 13212-8 邮政编码 〒 191-8686 市役所地址 日野市神明一丁目12番1號 電話號碼 +81-42-585-1111 法人編號 1000020132128 網站 http://www.city.hino.lg.jp/ 人口：日野市官方網頁 日野市 （日语： 日野市 ／ ひのし   Hino shi   * / ? ）為一位于東京都（不含島嶼部分）中央地帶的城市。從東京站乘坐中央線特別快速列車45分鐘即可到該市。面積27.53km²。1963年（昭和38年）11月3日，該市開始實行市制，為全日本第559個市。汽車企業日野自動車的總部位於這裡。 往東京都特別區部的通勤率為20.9%，往八王子市的通勤率為12.0%（平成22年國勢調査）。 目录 1 概要 ...
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Tu-95轟炸機

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body.skin-minerva .mw-parser-output table.infobox caption{text-align:center} 图-95 Ту–95 北约代号：熊（Bear） 一架在安格斯空军基地的图-95MS 概觀 類型 战略轰炸机 代號 北约代号： Bear （熊） 乘員 7名 駕駛員2名，機尾炮手1名，其他人員4名 首飛 1952年11月12日 服役 1956年 設計 圖波列夫設計局 產量 超过500架 現況 现役 主要用戶   蘇聯   俄羅斯 衍生機型 图-114、图-119、Tu-95 技术数据 長度 49.50米（162呎5吋） 翼展 51.10米（167呎8吋） 高度 12.12米（39呎9吋） 翼面積 310平方米（3,330平方呎） 空重 90,000公斤（198,000磅） 最大起飛重量 188,000公斤（414,500磅） 發動機 4具库兹涅佐夫NK-12MV型渦輪螺旋槳發動機 功率 4×11,000千瓦（14,800馬力） 性能數據 最大速度 925公里／時（500節，575哩／時） 爬升率 10米／秒（2,000呎／分） 最大升限 12,000米（39,000呎） 最大航程 15,000公里（8,100海浬，9,400哩） 翼負荷 606公斤／平方米（124磅／平方呎） 推重比 235 W／公斤（0.143馬力／磅） 武器装备 機炮 1具/2具AM-23型23公釐雷達控制機砲（機尾） 飛彈 空对地导弹： Kh-20、Kh-22 Kh-26、Kh-55 炸彈 60枚FAB-250炸彈，或 30枚FAB-500炸彈。 其他 载弹量（包括飞弹）：最多15,000公斤（33,000磅） Tu-95熊式MR型機 图-95 （俄语： Ту–95 ， 英语： Tu-95 ），北約代號： Bear （ 熊 ），是蘇聯圖波列夫設計局所研製，是全世界唯一服役的大型四渦輪螺旋槳發動機...
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