How does the squeeze theorem imply that $lim_{thetato 0}sintheta=0$ and $lim_{thetato 0}costheta=1$?












2












$begingroup$


I'm trying to understand how the sandwich/ squeeze theorem establishes that $lim_{thetato 0}sintheta = 0$ and $lim_{thetato 0}costheta = 1$.



Mainly, i'm trying to understand this logic, rather than trying to answer an assignment question.






calculus limits







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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you already equipped with the series representation of $sin theta$ and $cos theta$ and their approximation by Taylor polynomials? Because first you need an appropriate approximation of these functions near $0$ and then we could check how the sandwich trick works.
    $endgroup$
    – trancelocation
    3 hours ago
















2












$begingroup$


I'm trying to understand how the sandwich/ squeeze theorem establishes that $lim_{thetato 0}sintheta = 0$ and $lim_{thetato 0}costheta = 1$.



Mainly, i'm trying to understand this logic, rather than trying to answer an assignment question.






calculus limits







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you already equipped with the series representation of $sin theta$ and $cos theta$ and their approximation by Taylor polynomials? Because first you need an appropriate approximation of these functions near $0$ and then we could check how the sandwich trick works.
    $endgroup$
    – trancelocation
    3 hours ago














2












2








2





$begingroup$


I'm trying to understand how the sandwich/ squeeze theorem establishes that $lim_{thetato 0}sintheta = 0$ and $lim_{thetato 0}costheta = 1$.



Mainly, i'm trying to understand this logic, rather than trying to answer an assignment question.






calculus limits







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm trying to understand how the sandwich/ squeeze theorem establishes that $lim_{thetato 0}sintheta = 0$ and $lim_{thetato 0}costheta = 1$.



Mainly, i'm trying to understand this logic, rather than trying to answer an assignment question.






calculus limits




calculus limits






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 12 mins ago









Asaf Karagila♦

305k32435765




305k32435765










asked 3 hours ago









JamesJames

163




163








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you already equipped with the series representation of $sin theta$ and $cos theta$ and their approximation by Taylor polynomials? Because first you need an appropriate approximation of these functions near $0$ and then we could check how the sandwich trick works.
    $endgroup$
    – trancelocation
    3 hours ago














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Are you already equipped with the series representation of $sin theta$ and $cos theta$ and their approximation by Taylor polynomials? Because first you need an appropriate approximation of these functions near $0$ and then we could check how the sandwich trick works.
    $endgroup$
    – trancelocation
    3 hours ago








1




1




$begingroup$
Are you already equipped with the series representation of $sin theta$ and $cos theta$ and their approximation by Taylor polynomials? Because first you need an appropriate approximation of these functions near $0$ and then we could check how the sandwich trick works.
$endgroup$
– trancelocation
3 hours ago




$begingroup$
Are you already equipped with the series representation of $sin theta$ and $cos theta$ and their approximation by Taylor polynomials? Because first you need an appropriate approximation of these functions near $0$ and then we could check how the sandwich trick works.
$endgroup$
– trancelocation
3 hours ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

The idea behind sandwich/squeeze theorem is intuitive enough. If values of a function $f$ are lying (sandwiched) between those of $g, h$ and values of $g, h$ tend to a common limit then that of $f$ also tend to the same limit.



We have the fundamental inequality $|sin x|leq |x|$ for $0<|x|<pi/2$ which is the same as $$-|x|leq sin xleq |x|$$ for $0<|x|<pi/2$ and since both $-|x|$ and $|x|$ tend to $0$ as $xto 0$ it follows that $lim_{xto 0}sin x=0$.



For $cos x$ the situation is tricky and we need to use a bit of trigonometry. We have $$cos x=1-2sin^2(x/2)$$ and noting the earlier inequality for $sin $ we get $$1-frac{x^2}{2}leq cos xleq 1$$ And by squeeze we get $lim_{xto 0}cos x=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    I try to explain the logic by solving the exercize. First of all, this result is also known as the two policemen theorem because if two policemen are escorting a person between them, and both officers go to a cell, then the prisoner must also end up in the cell. This summarizes the main idea of the theorem.



    Now, we know that when $x$ is sufficiently near to $0$ (i.e. the functions must be defined in a neighbourhood of such a point), $-xle sin xle x$ and this holds for any $x$ sufficiently small. Since limits preserve the linear order, we have that if limit of $sin x$ exists, then $$lim_{xrightarrow0} -xle lim_{xrightarrow0} sin x le lim_{xrightarrow0} x.$$
    But the first and the last limits are $0$, hence limit of $sin x$ exists and is $0$ because this function is eventually bounded both from above and below by functions converging to the same limit, so $sin x$ can't go away.



    Edit: generally speaking, you need two functions/policemen who bound the function of which you want to compute the limit, from above and below respectively, in a neighbourhood of the limit point and they must have the same limit at that point.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 2




      $begingroup$
      Strictly speaking, the officers don't actually have to enter the cell, they just have to approach arbitrarily close to it, and then the prisoner must also approach arbitrarily close to it. :-)
      $endgroup$
      – Brian Tung
      2 hours ago






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      There are some inaccuracies in this answer. The inequalities $-x leq sin , xleq x$ can hold only for $x geq 0$ so one can only take right hand limits.
      $endgroup$
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      2 hours ago













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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






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    3












    $begingroup$

    The idea behind sandwich/squeeze theorem is intuitive enough. If values of a function $f$ are lying (sandwiched) between those of $g, h$ and values of $g, h$ tend to a common limit then that of $f$ also tend to the same limit.



    We have the fundamental inequality $|sin x|leq |x|$ for $0<|x|<pi/2$ which is the same as $$-|x|leq sin xleq |x|$$ for $0<|x|<pi/2$ and since both $-|x|$ and $|x|$ tend to $0$ as $xto 0$ it follows that $lim_{xto 0}sin x=0$.



    For $cos x$ the situation is tricky and we need to use a bit of trigonometry. We have $$cos x=1-2sin^2(x/2)$$ and noting the earlier inequality for $sin $ we get $$1-frac{x^2}{2}leq cos xleq 1$$ And by squeeze we get $lim_{xto 0}cos x=1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      3












      $begingroup$

      The idea behind sandwich/squeeze theorem is intuitive enough. If values of a function $f$ are lying (sandwiched) between those of $g, h$ and values of $g, h$ tend to a common limit then that of $f$ also tend to the same limit.



      We have the fundamental inequality $|sin x|leq |x|$ for $0<|x|<pi/2$ which is the same as $$-|x|leq sin xleq |x|$$ for $0<|x|<pi/2$ and since both $-|x|$ and $|x|$ tend to $0$ as $xto 0$ it follows that $lim_{xto 0}sin x=0$.



      For $cos x$ the situation is tricky and we need to use a bit of trigonometry. We have $$cos x=1-2sin^2(x/2)$$ and noting the earlier inequality for $sin $ we get $$1-frac{x^2}{2}leq cos xleq 1$$ And by squeeze we get $lim_{xto 0}cos x=1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        3












        3








        3





        $begingroup$

        The idea behind sandwich/squeeze theorem is intuitive enough. If values of a function $f$ are lying (sandwiched) between those of $g, h$ and values of $g, h$ tend to a common limit then that of $f$ also tend to the same limit.



        We have the fundamental inequality $|sin x|leq |x|$ for $0<|x|<pi/2$ which is the same as $$-|x|leq sin xleq |x|$$ for $0<|x|<pi/2$ and since both $-|x|$ and $|x|$ tend to $0$ as $xto 0$ it follows that $lim_{xto 0}sin x=0$.



        For $cos x$ the situation is tricky and we need to use a bit of trigonometry. We have $$cos x=1-2sin^2(x/2)$$ and noting the earlier inequality for $sin $ we get $$1-frac{x^2}{2}leq cos xleq 1$$ And by squeeze we get $lim_{xto 0}cos x=1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The idea behind sandwich/squeeze theorem is intuitive enough. If values of a function $f$ are lying (sandwiched) between those of $g, h$ and values of $g, h$ tend to a common limit then that of $f$ also tend to the same limit.



        We have the fundamental inequality $|sin x|leq |x|$ for $0<|x|<pi/2$ which is the same as $$-|x|leq sin xleq |x|$$ for $0<|x|<pi/2$ and since both $-|x|$ and $|x|$ tend to $0$ as $xto 0$ it follows that $lim_{xto 0}sin x=0$.



        For $cos x$ the situation is tricky and we need to use a bit of trigonometry. We have $$cos x=1-2sin^2(x/2)$$ and noting the earlier inequality for $sin $ we get $$1-frac{x^2}{2}leq cos xleq 1$$ And by squeeze we get $lim_{xto 0}cos x=1$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 3 hours ago









        Paramanand SinghParamanand Singh

        50.2k556163




        50.2k556163























            2












            $begingroup$

            I try to explain the logic by solving the exercize. First of all, this result is also known as the two policemen theorem because if two policemen are escorting a person between them, and both officers go to a cell, then the prisoner must also end up in the cell. This summarizes the main idea of the theorem.



            Now, we know that when $x$ is sufficiently near to $0$ (i.e. the functions must be defined in a neighbourhood of such a point), $-xle sin xle x$ and this holds for any $x$ sufficiently small. Since limits preserve the linear order, we have that if limit of $sin x$ exists, then $$lim_{xrightarrow0} -xle lim_{xrightarrow0} sin x le lim_{xrightarrow0} x.$$
            But the first and the last limits are $0$, hence limit of $sin x$ exists and is $0$ because this function is eventually bounded both from above and below by functions converging to the same limit, so $sin x$ can't go away.



            Edit: generally speaking, you need two functions/policemen who bound the function of which you want to compute the limit, from above and below respectively, in a neighbourhood of the limit point and they must have the same limit at that point.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Strictly speaking, the officers don't actually have to enter the cell, they just have to approach arbitrarily close to it, and then the prisoner must also approach arbitrarily close to it. :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Brian Tung
              2 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              There are some inaccuracies in this answer. The inequalities $-x leq sin , xleq x$ can hold only for $x geq 0$ so one can only take right hand limits.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              2 hours ago


















            2












            $begingroup$

            I try to explain the logic by solving the exercize. First of all, this result is also known as the two policemen theorem because if two policemen are escorting a person between them, and both officers go to a cell, then the prisoner must also end up in the cell. This summarizes the main idea of the theorem.



            Now, we know that when $x$ is sufficiently near to $0$ (i.e. the functions must be defined in a neighbourhood of such a point), $-xle sin xle x$ and this holds for any $x$ sufficiently small. Since limits preserve the linear order, we have that if limit of $sin x$ exists, then $$lim_{xrightarrow0} -xle lim_{xrightarrow0} sin x le lim_{xrightarrow0} x.$$
            But the first and the last limits are $0$, hence limit of $sin x$ exists and is $0$ because this function is eventually bounded both from above and below by functions converging to the same limit, so $sin x$ can't go away.



            Edit: generally speaking, you need two functions/policemen who bound the function of which you want to compute the limit, from above and below respectively, in a neighbourhood of the limit point and they must have the same limit at that point.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Strictly speaking, the officers don't actually have to enter the cell, they just have to approach arbitrarily close to it, and then the prisoner must also approach arbitrarily close to it. :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Brian Tung
              2 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              There are some inaccuracies in this answer. The inequalities $-x leq sin , xleq x$ can hold only for $x geq 0$ so one can only take right hand limits.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              2 hours ago
















            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            I try to explain the logic by solving the exercize. First of all, this result is also known as the two policemen theorem because if two policemen are escorting a person between them, and both officers go to a cell, then the prisoner must also end up in the cell. This summarizes the main idea of the theorem.



            Now, we know that when $x$ is sufficiently near to $0$ (i.e. the functions must be defined in a neighbourhood of such a point), $-xle sin xle x$ and this holds for any $x$ sufficiently small. Since limits preserve the linear order, we have that if limit of $sin x$ exists, then $$lim_{xrightarrow0} -xle lim_{xrightarrow0} sin x le lim_{xrightarrow0} x.$$
            But the first and the last limits are $0$, hence limit of $sin x$ exists and is $0$ because this function is eventually bounded both from above and below by functions converging to the same limit, so $sin x$ can't go away.



            Edit: generally speaking, you need two functions/policemen who bound the function of which you want to compute the limit, from above and below respectively, in a neighbourhood of the limit point and they must have the same limit at that point.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            I try to explain the logic by solving the exercize. First of all, this result is also known as the two policemen theorem because if two policemen are escorting a person between them, and both officers go to a cell, then the prisoner must also end up in the cell. This summarizes the main idea of the theorem.



            Now, we know that when $x$ is sufficiently near to $0$ (i.e. the functions must be defined in a neighbourhood of such a point), $-xle sin xle x$ and this holds for any $x$ sufficiently small. Since limits preserve the linear order, we have that if limit of $sin x$ exists, then $$lim_{xrightarrow0} -xle lim_{xrightarrow0} sin x le lim_{xrightarrow0} x.$$
            But the first and the last limits are $0$, hence limit of $sin x$ exists and is $0$ because this function is eventually bounded both from above and below by functions converging to the same limit, so $sin x$ can't go away.



            Edit: generally speaking, you need two functions/policemen who bound the function of which you want to compute the limit, from above and below respectively, in a neighbourhood of the limit point and they must have the same limit at that point.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited 2 hours ago

























            answered 3 hours ago









            LBJFSLBJFS

            1657




            1657








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Strictly speaking, the officers don't actually have to enter the cell, they just have to approach arbitrarily close to it, and then the prisoner must also approach arbitrarily close to it. :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Brian Tung
              2 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              There are some inaccuracies in this answer. The inequalities $-x leq sin , xleq x$ can hold only for $x geq 0$ so one can only take right hand limits.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              2 hours ago
















            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Strictly speaking, the officers don't actually have to enter the cell, they just have to approach arbitrarily close to it, and then the prisoner must also approach arbitrarily close to it. :-)
              $endgroup$
              – Brian Tung
              2 hours ago






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              There are some inaccuracies in this answer. The inequalities $-x leq sin , xleq x$ can hold only for $x geq 0$ so one can only take right hand limits.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              2 hours ago










            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            Strictly speaking, the officers don't actually have to enter the cell, they just have to approach arbitrarily close to it, and then the prisoner must also approach arbitrarily close to it. :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Brian Tung
            2 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            Strictly speaking, the officers don't actually have to enter the cell, they just have to approach arbitrarily close to it, and then the prisoner must also approach arbitrarily close to it. :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Brian Tung
            2 hours ago




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            There are some inaccuracies in this answer. The inequalities $-x leq sin , xleq x$ can hold only for $x geq 0$ so one can only take right hand limits.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            2 hours ago






            $begingroup$
            There are some inaccuracies in this answer. The inequalities $-x leq sin , xleq x$ can hold only for $x geq 0$ so one can only take right hand limits.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            2 hours ago




















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            body.skin-minerva .mw-parser-output table.infobox caption{text-align:center} 图-95 Ту–95 北约代号：熊（Bear） 一架在安格斯空军基地的图-95MS 概觀 類型 战略轰炸机 代號 北约代号： Bear （熊） 乘員 7名 駕駛員2名，機尾炮手1名，其他人員4名 首飛 1952年11月12日 服役 1956年 設計 圖波列夫設計局 產量 超过500架 現況 现役 主要用戶   蘇聯   俄羅斯 衍生機型 图-114、图-119、Tu-95 技术数据 長度 49.50米（162呎5吋） 翼展 51.10米（167呎8吋） 高度 12.12米（39呎9吋） 翼面積 310平方米（3,330平方呎） 空重 90,000公斤（198,000磅） 最大起飛重量 188,000公斤（414,500磅） 發動機 4具库兹涅佐夫NK-12MV型渦輪螺旋槳發動機 功率 4×11,000千瓦（14,800馬力） 性能數據 最大速度 925公里／時（500節，575哩／時） 爬升率 10米／秒（2,000呎／分） 最大升限 12,000米（39,000呎） 最大航程 15,000公里（8,100海浬，9,400哩） 翼負荷 606公斤／平方米（124磅／平方呎） 推重比 235 W／公斤（0.143馬力／磅） 武器装备 機炮 1具/2具AM-23型23公釐雷達控制機砲（機尾） 飛彈 空对地导弹： Kh-20、Kh-22 Kh-26、Kh-55 炸彈 60枚FAB-250炸彈，或 30枚FAB-500炸彈。 其他 载弹量（包括飞弹）：最多15,000公斤（33,000磅） Tu-95熊式MR型機 图-95 （俄语： Ту–95 ， 英语： Tu-95 ），北約代號： Bear （ 熊 ），是蘇聯圖波列夫設計局所研製，是全世界唯一服役的大型四渦輪螺旋槳發動機...
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